In an investment policy statement, the execution of the policy and permitted asset types are typically specified in the:
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Investment guidelines in an IPS will address policy execution, permitted asset types, and leverage to be deployed. Investment objectives refer to risk and return goals. The appendices typically include information such as baseline asset allocations and permitted deviations.
Ralph Olney, CFA, is working on an investment policy statement for a client and has identified risk tolerance as high, investment horizon as long, and liquidity need as low. Based only on this information, Olney's client is least likely:
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A life insurance company typically has low risk tolerance and high liquidity needs. Long investment horizons and low liquidity needs are typical of endowment funds and defined benefit pension plans.
Which of the following statements is least accurate regarding the sources of organizational risk?
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There are many interactions among an organization's risk, and they occur frequently. Financial risks come from exposure to the market. Non-financial risks include risks that come from the firm's operations and risks that come from external sources
The portfolio approach to investing is most accurately described as:
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The portfolio approach to investing is evaluating individual investments in the context of their impact on the portfolio's risk and return. Without the portfolio perspective, the risk and return of each investment is evaluated in isolation.
In capital market theory, the efficient frontier is:
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The efficient frontier comprises the set of portfolios with the highest expected return for each possible level of portfolio risk, based on a universe of risky assets. The set of portfolios with the least risk for each possible value of expected returns is the minimum variance frontier.
Which of the following is least likely a component of a risk management framework?
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Eliminating risks is not always possible or desirable. Instead a risk management framework should focus on managing and mitigating risks to achieve an optimal level of risk overall.
Ed Smith has risk-return indifference curves that are steeper than those of Meg Jones. Which of the following statements b est describes the risk preferences of the investors and risk-return characteristics of their optimal portfolios, assuming they have the same market expectations?
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Smith's more steeply sloped utility curve indicates less willingness to assume more risk for more return. The optimal portfolio for the more risk averse Smith is less risky, and consequently has a lower expected return than Jones's optimal portfolio, given the risk- return trade-off offered along the CML.
To assess the sensitivity of the value of a derivative to the price of its underlying asset, an analyst will focus on the derivative's:
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Delta is the sensitivity of derivatives values to the price of the underlying asset. Vega is the sensitivity of derivatives values to the volatility of the underlying asset price. Gamma is the sensitivity of delta to the change in price of the underlying asset.
Based on a questionnaire about investment risk, an advisor concludes that an investor's risk tolerance is high, but based on an analysis of the client's income needs and time horizon, he concludes the investor's risk tolerance is low. The most appropriate action for the advisor is to:
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When determining an investor's risk tolerance, an advisor must consider both the investor's ability and willingness to bear risk. Even though the investor has a high willingness to bear risk, his ability to take risk (based on his financial situation) is low, and this should take precedence. A portfolio that emphasizes bonds over stocks has less investment risk and is the most appropriate choice.
An investor who chooses to invest her annual bonus in growth stocks, while investing her savings from income in government bonds, is most likely exhibiting:
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Investing funds differently based on their source is an example of mental accounting bias. The investor should make investment decisions for her overall portfolio based on portfolio risk, expected return, and her preferences.
Over a recent period, an investment portfolio had a positive M-squared alpha but its Jensen's alpha was negative. A portfolio manager should conclude that the portfolio:
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If a portfolio's M-squared alpha is positive, its Sharpe ratio, which equals the slope of the portfolio's capital allocation line, is greater than that of the market portfolio. Negative alpha means the portfolio returned less than its expected equilibrium return based on its systematic risk.
A portfolio manager has identified a set of asset classes that closely represents the universe of securities that are permitted investments for an endowment fund. After estimating the expected risk, returns, and correlations for these asset classes, the manager identifies a portfolio that best meets the risk and return objectives identified in the client's IPS. This portfolio reflects the manager's:
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A portfolio manager performs strategic asset allocation when she determines the portfolio weights in each of the appropriate asset classes that will best meet the investor's return and risk objectives. Tactical asset allocation is an active management strategy of deviating from the target asset allocation to take advantage of short-term opportunities.
James Franklin, CFA, has high risk tolerance and seeks high returns. Based on capital market theory, Franklin would most appropriately hold:
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According to capital market theory, all investors will choose a combination of the market portfolio and borrowing or lending at the risk-free rate; that is, a portfolio on the CML. An investor with high risk tolerance will choose a position in the market portfolio, partially funded by borrowing at the risk-free rate.
Which of the following would most appropriately be termed an absolute risk objective? Return should be:
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Returns of 5% or more 95% of the time is an absolute return objective. The other objectives are stated relative to the risk-free rate and relative to the S&P 500 index.
An investor has a portfolio of 10 individual stocks. and the investor adds another 10 stocks with returns that are less than perfectly correlated with the returns on the original portfolio. These additions are least likely to decrease the portfolio's:
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Systematic risk (non-diversifiable or market risk) is the risk that cannot be diversified away. Unsystematic risk can be diversified away, and doing so can decrease the total risk of a portfolio.
The covariance of rates of return on two securities is most accurately described as the correlation of the asset returns:
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The covariance of asset returns is given by the formula: , where is the standard deviation of returns for asset 1, is the standard deviation of returns for asset 2, and is the correlation of returns for assets 1 and 2.
The process of selecting firm assets by considering their various risk characteristics and how they combine to meet the firm's risk tolerance is most appropriately referred to as risk:
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The process is termed risk budgeting, which is part of risk governance and of the overall process of risk management.
For which of the following types of investment companies are shares least likely to trade at their net asset value?
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A venture capital fund will have a limited number of investors who commit funds, and the venture capital fund's manager invests these monies in start-up companies. The venture capital fund does not trade itself, and it is highly illiquid. Any transactions in the fund by its investors are likely to occur at a discount or premium, depending on the fund's success to date. Due to its redemption procedures, an exchange-traded fund (ETF) will track the fund's net asset value, but it can sell at a small premium or discount to its net asset value. Open-end mutual funds trade at their net asset values per share. New shares are issued at a price equal to this net asset value at the time of the investment.